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In English grammar is Mood -- the characteristic of a transitive verb's form expressed by a speaker (Garner) -- exclusive to speech? If not, can such expression of action/state be incorporated in written form? Italics maybe: yes/no?
So mood singles modality, and since it uses grammatical elements (parts of speech, etc.), such is applicable to both speech and the written word. Did I interpret those points corrently Will? I need to be clear on this distinction.