namedujour
New Member
I've posed this question a number of times in various forums, and no one has ever given me a satisfactory reply. I can always tell when a news article (or anything, for that matter) is written by a British writer because I see "have got."
As an American, I learned that the following is proper: get, got, have gotten. There is no "have got" in proper American English. It's either "have" or "have gotten."
So, I wondered if perhaps this is a colloquialism. Oftentimes Americans will say "different than" knowing it's incorrect (Brits use "different to" in the same manner), and that the correct form is "different from."
I'm wondering if Brits know "have got" is incorrect and use it anyway, or if British grammar is set up differently.
I went to a British dictionary and found the word "gotten" with the same usage as appears in American dictionaries. Is "have gotten" now considered to be an archaic term in speech and writing? Or is it just something everyone says and nobody (but an American) notices?
As an American, I learned that the following is proper: get, got, have gotten. There is no "have got" in proper American English. It's either "have" or "have gotten."
So, I wondered if perhaps this is a colloquialism. Oftentimes Americans will say "different than" knowing it's incorrect (Brits use "different to" in the same manner), and that the correct form is "different from."
I'm wondering if Brits know "have got" is incorrect and use it anyway, or if British grammar is set up differently.
I went to a British dictionary and found the word "gotten" with the same usage as appears in American dictionaries. Is "have gotten" now considered to be an archaic term in speech and writing? Or is it just something everyone says and nobody (but an American) notices?