Hm, I'm confused. What is the difference, to you, between protective justice and prohibitive law? Why do you think that to the courts, and as you're saying- "prohibitive law", the act itself is immaterial outside of the fact that it breaks the law?
This is exactly why I was talking about slavery concepts in the other thread.
If someone beats up your sister, you pound the crap out of him BECAUSE he hit your sister. The courts deal with it differently. You and most people presume the court is dealing with your sister's hurt but it definately isn't. The judge is only concerned on whether the mauler
broke a law against assault. The king's rules are deemed important and punishment is assigned for that only. Any harm to the person is never the real issue. If a man can contrive to harm your sister in a manner that doesn't match the definition of a law--he may do so freely.
On the other hand, protective justice allows us to collectively care for all our sisters directly--while also finally freeing ourselves from serfdom to the law.
Ok, so the answer to my first question--what is the difference between a protective justice and prohibitive law--the difference is the motive for punishment? In protective justice, a person is not punished because they have broken a law, but rather because they have caused someone harm? Is this what you are saying?
Now, before we continue, I really must point out two things in your response:
1) You are making an assumption about what I think and believe. I do not appreciate that, especially since I am trying to understand what you think and not make assumptions about you. I expect the same respect in return.
Never once did I say anything about my beliefs, whether I agree with you, or whether I disagree with you. All I asked was why
you think what you think. For all you know, I may agree with you 100%, but I just wanted to hear your personal reasons.
2) You did not answer my second question. All you did was restate that the courts, as things currently stand, care for nothing other than the fact that a law was broken. If I am correct in what I have said above, then I understand
what you are saying (and if I am not correct, then please explain further). What I am asking is
why do you believe this to be the case. Those are two completely different things.
So, can you answer my question? And without making assumptions this time?
And for what it is worth, I have not really read the other thread.