Sybarite,
I think I responded fairly to the questions you raised in the detail with which you raised them. If you now tell me you quarrel with my answers because they didn't respond accurately or completely enough to further considerations you had in mind at the time, but didn't state, well, I can only say I am not a mind reader.
Perhaps you might find some relevant commentary in my response to Beer Good, so I recommend it to you. However, I have to say your 'proof'' that there never was free will might qualify you as a theologian, but it cuts no ice with me.
Peder
Peder, I'm shocked. I was doing my utmost to behave in a respectful way in this debate and I'm sorry if you've taken my approach in a different way. I certainly have not suggested that you didn't respond "fairly" to anything. What I'm concerned to do here is merely to make the discussion as clear as possible.
As to your dismissal of my analysis of the notion of free will in terms of Christian theology, I notice that you haven't actually given an explanation of why it "cuts no ice" with you, but have merely dismissed it, apparently out of hand. Are you saying that:
• in terms of Christianity, theology doesn't matter;
• in terms of the Judeo-Christian tradition, God is not omniscient, omnipresent and omnipotent;
• in terms of Christianity, omniscient, omnipresent and omnipotent don't really mean omniscient, omnipresent and omnipotent – thus the omniscient, omnipresent and omnipotent god wasn't/isn't
really all-seeing, present everywhere and all-powerful?
You, Peder, have raised (in this part of this discussion) the issue of free will of terms of the Christian religion. Are you now suggesting that you wish to discuss aspects of the Christian religion without recourse to Christian theology and tradition?
Isn't that just a little bit pick 'n' mix?
I think that beer good makes some very salient points – not least that if you have something that has divine authority claimed for it, it is different from something that does not have such a claim attached to it.
beer good also raises the issue of how morals have changed. He mentions the story of Sodom and Gomorrah, which apparently implies that a 'good man' can still be a 'good man' even after he's offered his virgin daughters up to be raped.
He could equally have mentioned the story of Job, whom God and the Devil gambled with to see just how faithful he was, allowing his family and servants and slaves to be murdered and killed etc.
He could have mentioned how God told Abraham to murder his own child, Isaac. At this point, I'll interject a small anecdote if I may. I used to have to go to a little event called Sunshine Corner every Monday evening when I was a child. It was a sort of slightly more playful version of Sunday school. I remember the clergyman – in this case, my other father (anyone see how this is coming out?) – telling us the story of Abraham and Isaac, and how it was a test of faith and thus 'A Good Thing'. It's rather perverted hearing one's own father tell one (and other children) that being prepared to kill one's child on the grounds that God told them to is 'A Good Thing'.
So yes – morality has changed. We don't consider slavery acceptable any more. We probably wouldn't think it acceptable to kill someone for not keeping the Sabbath holy. We don't (I imagine) consider it 'moral' for a father to offer his virgin daughters to a mob in the hope that that would dissuade them from any ideas of sodomy. We wouldn't think it right that anyone should gamble with another person's life and the lives of their loved ones for a bit of a bet.
But all that leaves us with rather a problem.
Either the book that tells all these stories is 'holy', is 'divine', or it is not.
Concepts such as 'holy' and 'divine' are absolutes – you can't be 'a bit divine' or, in the case of the
Bible, a 'bit divinely inspired'.
If the
Bible is a 'holy' and 'divine' work, and these stories are 'holy' and 'divine', then we have outgrown them. We have decided that God got it wrong – that those stories are immoral at worst: at best, not appropriate to our times.
But where does that leave God? Can an omniscient, omnipresent and omnipotent god be wrong? If God, as described in Judeo-Christian tradition, is omniscient, omnipresent and omnipotent, then those stories, those teachings, are still relevant – we have simply become disobedient and have moved away from God.
So if the god of Judeo-Christian tradition exists, then most of us in the Western world have moved beyond him, which rather suggests limits on his omniscience, omnipresence and omnipotence.
The point with 'pick 'n' mix' religion, as opposed to atheism, is that believers have to decide whether their holy book is, indeed, holy. If they say that it is, then perhaps they should stick to the whole of it and not just picks out the bits that they find convenient or easy to abide by or suit their own prejudices? After all, if it's holy and divine, then who are humans to decide which bits are relevant today and which bits should be shoved quietly into a corner and forgotten?
There is no atheist theology. There is no atheist set text. No atheists are sitting down trying to excuse themselves from one bit of some atheist set text on the grounds that they don't like that bit – when in fact, someone has told them that that is what they should do/think – and claimed special authority for doing so. They can read something – or nothing. They can listen to someone – or no-one. They can construct their own morality – their own ethical framework for living – by themselves or with the help of others. There are no rules to atheism – and nobody suggesting that there are or should be.
That is a difference.